If God has foreknowledge of everything that will ever occur, then He has always had this knowledge. Included in this is full knowledge of all actions that He will perform. Because of this, He is unable to change anything that will occur - it would be a logical contradiction if He could, and because He cannot do anything that is logically impossible, He cannot do anything that He does not already know that He will do. Hence He does not have His own Free Will.
So, because He cannot do anything that He does not already know about, He is constrained by the knowledge that He has always had. Hence He is a pre-programmed machine that runs a pre-programmed script. So if something happens and you think that God should have intervened, it is not His fault - He was always been that way and He cannot do anything about it - if He did, He would aready know that He was going to do something about it.
It also follows that God has not prepared any plans - anything that you think is any part of any plan of God is just another thing that God was always wanting to do or was always going to do, because He always knew what He was going to do. And because God has always had this knowledge, He has not pre-determined what will happen because that would mean that He made plans - He just had/has the knowledge. Once you untangle the logic, you cannot avoid the conclusions I have described here. If you don't, then you do not understand what I have said.
This holds true for both the A and B theory of time. God can't foreknow what doesn't yet exist. God only knew future propositions of what he would do in any given situation
I can only assume that logic is not one of your strengths.
If omniscience means knowledge of absolutely everything, this necessarily includes knowledge of what is actually going to happen for all of time. My logic follows from this.
Until you point out any specific error in my logic (rather than non-specific comments) I have nothing to correct. Barometers and buses are not relevant to this because neither relates to actual foreknowledge - both rely upon a known track record.
Included in this is full knowledge of all actions that He will perform. Because of this, He is unable to change anything that will occur - it would be a logical contradiction if He could, and because He cannot do anything that is logically impossible, He cannot do anything that He does not already know that He will do.
Hence He does not have His own Free Will.
So, because He cannot do anything that He does not already know about, He is constrained by the knowledge that He has always had
Hence He is a pre-programmed machine that runs a pre-programmed script.
So if something happens and you think that God should have intervened, it is not His fault - He was always been that way and He cannot do anything about it - if He did, He would aready know that He was going to do something about it.
It also follows that God has not prepared any plans - anything that you think is any part of any plan of God is just another thing that God was always wanting to do or was always going to do, because He always knew what He was going to do.
Your comments about time and the existence of God indicate that you do not understand how/why the KCA fails to avoid the infinite regress aka the beginningless change continuum. With some Root Cause Analysis you will get there, with rhetoric you will not.
You seem not to have noticed that I put "if" at the start. I said "If God has foreknowledge of everything that will ever occur". So it follows that if omniscience does not mean what I said (or if this is the definition of omniscience that you are using) and that God does not have knowledge of the future, my whole agrument fails. I am well aware of this.
In simple terms, something that exists alone and is changeless cannot change. So the way around this is to assert that the changeless/timeless Disembodied Mind exists in metaphysical time (whatever that is in actuality).
Somehow this gets around the problem of how something that is changeless can change (by self-interrupting so that the eternal intention to will the creation of the universe can be actioned). But all this does in re-define changeless to exclude this stream of consciousness and the metaphysical time. So if there is this stream of consciousness, either it had a beginning or it has infinite regress. And if metaphysical time co-existed with the Disembodied Mind, then if that type of time relates to change (in the same way that the time we know of does), then it would seem that there would be an infinite regress. What I do not have is a clear definition/description/explanation of exactly what metaphysical time is in the context of actuality. Do you?
I am unclear about your definition of omniscience - your definition seems to be that an omniscient entity has complete knowledge of everything about which it can/could have knowledge. If so, that would seem to be less the Maximal Greatness that WLC refers to. Whilst everything about God is mysterious, it just may be the case that by some mysterious (unfathomable to humans) means/capability, God does know the actual future. After all, God does have another mysterious capability - the ability to "will" things into existence. So maybe you are being a bit hasty to rule out what God actually knows.
or the DM to do something other than exist in this changeless state, it needs interrupt its changeless existence. That is an event.
To cause this event requires a type of causation. If the DM exists in a state, this would have to be state causation, but WLC has rules this out. So we are left with event causation or agent causation. Because of the changeless/timeless existence, WLC also rules out event causation. This leaves agent causation. But the DM is all that exists, so there is no agent (that is, there is "nobody" other than the DM).
The DM cannot act as an agent to interrupt itself - an agent does something to something else, not itself.
So what caused the self-unterruption? (and I mean what was the cause, not what was the causer - the DM was the causer, but what action/event caused the self interruption?)
The omniscience that you describe seems like this - The omniscient entity knows all possible future time-lines, but not which one will actually occur. Does that sound right?
Agent causation cannot occur for a disembodied mind that exists timelessly/changelessly and alone. Agent causation requires a time-line or change-line. The agent chooses a point along the line. But if there is no line, the "agent" is unable to exercise a choice, because that requires a line on which to choose a point, and there is no such line here. But if we fabricate a plot device, anything is possible, so maybe that is the way to deal with this.
So if the interruption to the changelessness is an event, the event had a beginning of its existence, thus the event had a cause. To say that the DM does not need a cause in this case is to fabricate a plot device.
In the changelessness - is it your view that the DM is "on pause" and that any "thought" the DM has co-exists with the changelessness?
And if the interruption did not co-exist with the changelessnes, do you agree that the changelessness must be prior to the interruption? If yes, you have temporal succession.
On omniscience, I am talking about what I called Philosophical Omniscience. For that omniscience, the omniscient entity knows the actual future and hence is as I described. For what you are describing, it remains unclear. When you say "he not only knows all possible futures, but the one true future", do you mean that He knows which actual future time-line will occur? If yes, then it is as simple as I have suggested. If no, I have no idea what you mean by "the one true future" - I would appreciate an explanation.
In any case, it seems that you are constraining your God in the Time-theory you have chosen. God is mysterious and has capabilities that we humans cannot comprehend, so how can you impose your human understanding on this mysterious and unknowable God?
but it must be the necessary first property, otherwise you have infinite regress. That is why WLC says that.
Humans cannot experience changelessness/timelessness during that change continuum.
Your comments about change and time suggest that you do not realise that change and time go together
Now, he can have "new thoughts", but that would -as you've already suggested - would insinuate temporalness, which is completely logical with idea of previously being timeless.
That is, if he wanted to become temporal, he would become temporal and perform temporal actions.
Time is not something in and of itself - it is not a substance, an entity, a force or anything else. Where there is chage, there is time. When the DM begins the interruption, there is time - DM-Time began. This idea of time beginning with the creation of the universe can mean only that Universe-Time begins then. DM-Time began with the interruption - the creation/universe is not relevant to DM-Time.
You have said that the DM can have "new thoughts". That is a change. A "new thought" has a beginning of its existence. So there must be a cause of a "new thought". I do not understand what the DM does to cause a "new thought".
If you want to exempt the DM from the KCA P1 so that you can include a causeless change in the conclusion, you are question-begging.
I have pointed out the problem - how to get from changelessnesse/timelessness to the interruption (or "new thought" if you prefer). You have provided no explanation of what the DM does first to exit changelessness/timelessness.
What is the first thing that the DM does in stage2?